Timeline for answer to Is " have to" a modal verb? by shotdown
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 15, 2016 at 15:39 | comment | added | Araucaria - Him | @FumbleFingers Indeed! Please see my post below! | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 15:26 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | @Araucaria: Perhaps we will be able to figure this one out once we can decide what the relationship between those two highlighted elements has to be. | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 15:16 | comment | added | Araucaria - Him | @FumbleFingers Yes indeed, that's why it's considered a marginal member of the class like dare and need. Only completely modal-like in negatives and questions. I don't know the answer to your question :) | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 15:01 | comment | added | shotdown | @Araucaria Oh yes, sorry if forget to include 'need' and 'dare'. | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 14:59 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | @Araucaria: Ought we consider this a valid question? Or need we to insist that the infinitive marker always be present? | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 14:46 | comment | added | Araucaria - Him | How about "need" and "dare"? Why is ought to a member of that class when it is followed by an infinitive with to? | |
| Jan 15, 2016 at 14:44 | history | answered | shotdown | CC BY-SA 3.0 |