Timeline for If the original writing in Revelation 3:14 was in Koine Greek, why would a word need to be transliterated from Hebrew?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
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| Feb 15 at 20:44 | comment | added | Stephen Disraeli | @AJ SErvant of the Highest. Why have the English borrowed the French word for "chef"? Because the original "chefs de cuisine" were French and used the word in that form. So my guess is that the original Jewish Christians were the source of the word AMEN, which must have been part of their own culture. | |
| Feb 15 at 18:04 | comment | added | AJ Servant of The Highest | Thanks for the responses.. My question to that response is if the original language was Greek... why is there a need to reach "back" to Hebrew? Why not Latin or Aramaic? | |
| Feb 1 at 19:56 | comment | added | Draconis | And of course, we've now borrowed "Amen" into Latin, English, and hundreds of other languages too. | |
| Feb 1 at 6:33 | comment | added | Levan Gigineishvili | Or like New Yorkians say "capish?" (i.e. "do you understand?"), from Italian "capisci". | |
| Feb 1 at 5:44 | history | answered | Stephen Disraeli | CC BY-SA 4.0 |