Timeline for If the original writing in Revelation 3:14 was in Koine Greek, why would a word need to be transliterated from Hebrew?
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| Nov 21 at 18:21 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 21 at 17:28 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 15 at 20:19 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | @AJServantofTheHighest By Hebrew text I mean using Amen for the first term. So instead of saying "The Amen and the Amen..." in Revelation, He says "The Amen and the faithful and true..." Amen would correspond to the first use of Hebrew term in Isaiah 65:16 and faithful and true would correspond to "swearing or taking a vow and the second use of the Hebrew." | |
| Feb 15 at 18:23 | comment | added | AJ Servant of The Highest | I like the summary from Isaiah 65-66, acknowledging that it's a summary. I also appreciate the preservation of the God of Truth. When you say the "Hebrew" text, which one are you referring to specifically? Thanks! | |
| Feb 2 at 18:45 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 2 at 18:39 | history | answered | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |