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Jesus said to phariseesthe Pharisees in Matthew 15:5-6, YLT:

  • [YLT] 5) but ye say, Whoever may say to father or mother, An offering is whatever thou mayest be profited by me; 6) and he may not honour his father or his mother, and ye did set aside the command of God because of your tradition.
  • [ESV] 5) But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God, 6) he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word [or: law] of God.

[YLT] 5 but ye say, Whoever may say to father or mother, An offering is whatever thou mayest be profited by me; 6 and he may not honour his father or his mother, and ye did set aside the command of God because of your tradition.

[ESV] 5 But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God, 6 he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word [or: law] of God.

Mark mentions this too, in 7:11-13, but he also records the use of athe term “Korban”:

[YLT] 11) and ye say, If a man may say to father or to mother, Korban (that is, a gift), [is] whatever thou mayest be profited out of mine, 12) and no more do ye suffer him to do anything for his father or for his mother, 13) setting aside the word of God for your tradition that ye delivered; and many such like things ye do.'

There is a question on BHSE, — : Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13](Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13), — but the problem is that it does not address understanding of this passage from Jesus' follower perspective, i.e. christian, Christian, whoever he may originally be, jew or gentile. Nor do answers do that. My question is more about the meaning of the passage in the Bible's context. Matthew does not mention a “Korban”, and I think that is to re-address it further to all christiansChristians. And I don't understand what does that phrase meanmeans even when taken outside of Judaic tradition.

  • Can someone please explain to me in brief, simple words, what did that ‘tradition’ meanmeans, practically? What I've read in other question'questions' answers - says about taking a vow, but I honestly didn't get what are reasons or situations are for that. Is it possible to explain that in an instructive manner, like ‘do A, do B, do C, congratulations, law successfully violated’?
  • What does this passage may mean in practice, when interpreted from christiana Christian perspective, i.e. in relation to other NT passages that speak about family members?

 

I also did not understand answerthis answer on CSE, which is given in the comment section of the related question, quote from there:

It seems like it was supposed to be an answer, but it does not provide a clear sense to me at all, unfortunately.

Jesus said to pharisees in Matthew 15:5-6, YLT:

  • [YLT] 5) but ye say, Whoever may say to father or mother, An offering is whatever thou mayest be profited by me; 6) and he may not honour his father or his mother, and ye did set aside the command of God because of your tradition.
  • [ESV] 5) But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God, 6) he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word [or: law] of God.

Mark mentions this too, in 7:11-13, but he also records use of a term “Korban”:

[YLT] 11) and ye say, If a man may say to father or to mother, Korban (that is, a gift), [is] whatever thou mayest be profited out of mine, 12) and no more do ye suffer him to do anything for his father or for his mother, 13) setting aside the word of God for your tradition that ye delivered; and many such like things ye do.'

There is a question on BHSE, — Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13, — but the problem is that it does not address understanding of this passage from Jesus' follower perspective, i.e. christian, whoever he may originally be, jew or gentile. Nor answers do that. My question is more about the meaning of the passage in the Bible's context. Matthew does not mention a “Korban”, and I think that is to re-address it further to all christians. And I don't understand what does that phrase mean even when taken outside of Judaic tradition.

  • Can someone please explain to me in brief simple words, what did that ‘tradition’ mean, practically? What I've read in other question' answers - says about taking a vow, but I honestly didn't get what are reasons or situations for that. Is it possible to explain that in instructive manner, like ‘do A, do B, do C, congratulations, law successfully violated’?
  • What does this passage may mean in practice, when interpreted from christian perspective, i.e. in relation to other NT passages that speak about family members?

 

I also did not understand answer on CSE, which is given in comment section of related question, quote from there:

It seems like it was supposed to be an answer, but does not provide clear sense to me at all, unfortunately.

Jesus said to the Pharisees in Matthew 15:5-6, YLT:

[YLT] 5 but ye say, Whoever may say to father or mother, An offering is whatever thou mayest be profited by me; 6 and he may not honour his father or his mother, and ye did set aside the command of God because of your tradition.

[ESV] 5 But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God, 6 he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word [or: law] of God.

Mark mentions this too, in 7:11-13, but he also records the use of the term “Korban”:

[YLT] 11 and ye say, If a man may say to father or to mother, Korban (that is, a gift), [is] whatever thou mayest be profited out of mine, 12 and no more do ye suffer him to do anything for his father or for his mother, 13 setting aside the word of God for your tradition that ye delivered; and many such like things ye do.'

There is a question on BHSE: Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13](Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13), — but the problem is that it does not address understanding of this passage from Jesus' follower perspective, i.e., Christian, whoever he may originally be, jew or gentile. Nor do answers do that. My question is more about the meaning of the passage in the Bible's context. Matthew does not mention a “Korban”, and I think that is to re-address it further to all Christians. And I don't understand what that phrase means even when taken outside of Judaic tradition.

  • Can someone please explain to me in brief, simple words, what that ‘tradition’ means, practically? What I've read in other questions' answers says about taking a vow, but I honestly didn't get what are reasons or situations are for that. Is it possible to explain that in an instructive manner, like ‘do A, do B, do C, congratulations, law successfully violated’?
  • What does this passage mean in practice, when interpreted from a Christian perspective, i.e. in relation to other NT passages that speak about family members?

I also did not understand this answer on CSE, which is given in the comment section of the related question, quote from there:

It seems like it was supposed to be an answer, but it does not provide a clear sense to me at all, unfortunately.

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RaySolva
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How to “successfully” violate the Mosaic law by using Matthew 15:5-6?

Jesus said to pharisees in Matthew 15:5-6, YLT:

  • [YLT] 5) but ye say, Whoever may say to father or mother, An offering is whatever thou mayest be profited by me; 6) and he may not honour his father or his mother, and ye did set aside the command of God because of your tradition.
  • [ESV] 5) But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God, 6) he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word [or: law] of God.

Mark mentions this too, in 7:11-13, but he also records use of a term “Korban”:

[YLT] 11) and ye say, If a man may say to father or to mother, Korban (that is, a gift), [is] whatever thou mayest be profited out of mine, 12) and no more do ye suffer him to do anything for his father or for his mother, 13) setting aside the word of God for your tradition that ye delivered; and many such like things ye do.'

There is a question on BHSE, — Is this Pharisee tradition that Jesus rebuked in the Talmud? Mark 7:9-13, — but the problem is that it does not address understanding of this passage from Jesus' follower perspective, i.e. christian, whoever he may originally be, jew or gentile. Nor answers do that. My question is more about the meaning of the passage in the Bible's context. Matthew does not mention a “Korban”, and I think that is to re-address it further to all christians. And I don't understand what does that phrase mean even when taken outside of Judaic tradition.

  • Can someone please explain to me in brief simple words, what did that ‘tradition’ mean, practically? What I've read in other question' answers - says about taking a vow, but I honestly didn't get what are reasons or situations for that. Is it possible to explain that in instructive manner, like ‘do A, do B, do C, congratulations, law successfully violated’?
  • What does this passage may mean in practice, when interpreted from christian perspective, i.e. in relation to other NT passages that speak about family members?

I also did not understand answer on CSE, which is given in comment section of related question, quote from there:

If a man gives the benefits for his parents as offering (to God) as a vow or oath, then he is freed or forbidden from all obligation towards them due to the vow. This is the actual meaning of taking the name of the Lord in vain.

It seems like it was supposed to be an answer, but does not provide clear sense to me at all, unfortunately.