Timeline for answer to Luke 16:19-31 Lazarus and the rich man - literal, allegorical or a mixture of both? by Neville
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 16, 2022 at 7:18 | comment | added | Michael C | Have you ever remotely considered that "Truthful" didn't mean the same thing to a first century Hebrew as it means to a 21st century documentarian? You have to let the writers of the Scripture define the words they used, not someone from a radically different culture roughly 2,000 years later. When one tells a parable it should not be required that the teller say, "This was not an actual documented historical event, it's a story designed to illustrate a truth." The historicity of the story has no bearing on the truthfulness of the point it makes. | |
| Apr 16, 2022 at 1:09 | comment | added | Neville | Stating “…the narrator (who cannot lie or deceive) …” accurately describes Jesus - all that is being projected is what scripture says of him - that he is entirely truthful. | |
| Feb 23, 2022 at 20:39 | comment | added | Michael C | You're projecting modern expectations of "truthfulness" onto a witness that came out of a culture with a much different understanding of what makes something "true" or "a lie". Jesus didn't work for the Washington Post, the NY Times, or even the Wall Street Journal. He lived in first century Palestine. | |
| Feb 22, 2017 at 20:57 | history | answered | Neville | CC BY-SA 3.0 |