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Aug 20, 2024 at 8:39 comment added Perry Webb The question is avoiding the implications of ὄνομα in the ops translation of καὶ ἐχαρίσατο αὐτῷ °τὸ ὄνομα τὸ ὑπὲρ πᾶν ὄνομα, (Philip. 2:9, NA28)
Jun 17, 2020 at 9:51 history edited CommunityBot
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Nov 26, 2019 at 18:37 comment added Ruminator Please see this related question and the accepted answer: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/33276/…
Nov 26, 2019 at 18:28 comment added Daniel I believe the "promotion" and "given name" are a return from the "becoming nothing" in v. 7. Thus, I don't think the giving of the name indicates that he became God, but that the humbling which he experienced had been reversed, and that it has been recognized.
Nov 26, 2019 at 15:41 comment added Ruminator Thank you for this thoughtful post. What do you make of the fact that Jesus is clearly said to be "promoted" and "given a name" in response to his "obedience" to God?
Nov 26, 2019 at 14:55 history answered Daniel CC BY-SA 4.0