Timeline for answer to Can the word translated as "messiah" be considered a title when referring to Jesus? by M. Wm. Ferguson
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 7, 2013 at 23:18 | comment | added | M. Wm. Ferguson | Thanks for the editing, Jon. In the future, I'll try to be more careful as to which "Add" button I hit :) | |
| Jun 23, 2013 at 3:43 | history | edited | Jon Ericson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Merge the second answer into the first.
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| Jun 22, 2013 at 0:23 | comment | added | M. Wm. Ferguson | @H3br3wHamm3r81: I get that. I'm saying that, in the LXX, Greek χριστός = Hebrew משיח. But the simple Hebrew and LXX meaning later evolved, in the Gospels and letters of Paul, from simply "anointed one" into the current Orthodox Christian NT meaning which points to a "hoped-for anointed one". And isn't that who the Twelve and Paul believed Jesus of Nazareth to be? | |
| Jun 21, 2013 at 20:29 | comment | added | M. Wm. Ferguson | Sorry for the delay in responding. I've been having trees and heavy brush cleared and busy with that. At my age, and after doing that in stifling heat and humidity, it takes me a couple of days to recuperate. Nevertheless, I can agree in part with both Tim and Frank. | |
| Jun 19, 2013 at 5:59 | comment | added | user862 | @PatFerguson: The way you word it, it appears that "hoped-for" is instrinsically related to the meaning of the Hebrew word משיח or Greek word χριστός. The words simply means "anointed one." | |
| Jun 19, 2013 at 5:05 | comment | added | Tim Gallant | Agree with Frank. The notion that Paul uses Christos as a surname has nothing to do with the Greek text, and doesn't account for the fact that he places Christos both before and after Iesous. The truth of the matter is that Paul used the term just as one would expect from a 1st century Jew who believed something of eschatological significance had occurred. I.e. he used the term to refer to Jesus as the Messiah. | |
| Jun 19, 2013 at 3:24 | comment | added | Frank Luke | Last names weren't used the same way back then as now. Can you show some evidence that Paul regarded Christos as the last name of Jesus of Nazareth? | |
| Jun 19, 2013 at 1:27 | comment | added | M. Wm. Ferguson | Was not Jesus the "hoped-for anointed one" in the minds of John the Baptist and Jesus' disciples? (Cp., inter alia, John 1:29-45.) And don't the followers of both Judaism and Judeo-Christianity still look for their respective versions of Messiah ("hoped-for anointed one")? | |
| Jun 19, 2013 at 1:02 | history | edited | M. Wm. Ferguson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Edited (clarified) points 1 & 2.
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| Jun 18, 2013 at 21:52 | comment | added | user862 | Not quite accurate. משיח is also used to describe a Gentile, the Persian king Koresh ("Cyrus") (Isa. 45:1). And, frankly, the idea of "hoped-for anointed one" is yet to be proven and shouldn't simply be assumed according to what people have understood by hearsay or tradition. | |
| Jun 18, 2013 at 20:34 | history | edited | M. Wm. Ferguson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
fixed grammar
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| Jun 18, 2013 at 20:28 | history | answered | M. Wm. Ferguson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |