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Biblical Hermeneutics

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    I’ve always read it as Pilate spiting the religious leaders, like when he placed the words “king of the Jews” in three languages, and then says what I wrote I wrote after they asked him to say “wrote he said he is...”. I think he was just tired of their manipulations in forcing Pilate to part take in their dirty work. It was a petty retribution. Commented Apr 5, 2021 at 3:30
  • Are you aware of the audience to whom Pilate's words were addressed? Commented Apr 5, 2021 at 4:54
  • @chrylis-cautiouslyoptimistic- I understand that Pilate was engaged in debate with the Sanhedrin, and both sides were trying to play the crowds against the other. If you believe the audience unlocks the answer to this question, please feel free to chime in with an answer below? Thanks! Commented Apr 5, 2021 at 4:57
  • Why did Pilate refer to Jesus as Christ/Messiah ? - Because Jesus (Joshua) was, and still is, a fairly common Hebrew name, hence the necessity of specifying exactly which Jesus was meant, which was achieved by mentioning His cognomen, Christ. Commented Apr 30, 2021 at 4:35