Timeline for According to Hebrews 6:13-16 God swears by Himself an oath to Abraham, but at Genesis 22:15-16 why does it say the angel of the Lord swore the oath?
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S May 23, 2021 at 13:27 | history | suggested | Glorfindel |
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| May 23, 2021 at 10:54 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S May 23, 2021 at 13:27 | |||||
| May 19, 2021 at 0:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1394805086375882753 | ||
| May 18, 2021 at 21:05 | comment | added | Mr. Bond | @Kris Your right, an angel cannot swear an oath on behalf of God just like I stated. Your "assuming" that the angel of the Lord is an actual angel. You also "assume" (without any evidence) but speculation that Michael the arc angel is the angel of the Lord. Nigel explained the word "malak" and what it means in context. Regarding Stephen! Read what he says at Acts 7:30-34. He is referencing Exodus 3:2-7. At vs4, "God called to him/Moses from the midst of the bush, and said etc. Vs6, I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. This event is patterned after Genesis 22. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 17:52 | history | migrated | from christianity.stackexchange.com (revisions) | ||
| May 18, 2021 at 17:38 | comment | added | Mr. Bond | @PeterTurner I'll leave it up to you but I prefer to leave it here. Thanks again! | |
| May 18, 2021 at 17:29 | comment | added | Peter Turner | @Mr.Bond any qualms with a migration to hermenueitics? I think it's pretty clear what you're asking for here. If you wanted an answer from a churches dogma (which is just the Greek for opinion) as to whether an angel could do a thing, I think you'd have specified that in your question. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 13:52 | comment | added | Mr. Bond | @PeterTurner I edited the the thread in the form of a question? Please let me know if it meets the appropriate requirements. Thank You! | |
| May 18, 2021 at 12:31 | comment | added | Nigel J | I would suggest the question be edited to focus on the fact that the Lord is the one who swears by himself. He swears to do it. And he then does it. The Malak of God is also Lord. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 10:25 | comment | added | Peter Turner | This question on Biblical interpretation is missing the fairly standard "According to whom" clause. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 4:37 | answer | added | Nigel J | timeline score: 9 | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:53 | comment | added | Kris | True an angel cant swear on behalf of Jehovah And obviously the angel of Jehovah is not swearing an oath to Abraham | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:44 | comment | added | Mr. Bond | @Kris At Genesis 22:1-2 was the angel of the Lord quoting God in those two verses or was God Himself speaking? Your also missing other very important points. If you witnessed a crime and had to testify in court you would not send someone else to testify for you. Even you could not appear in person the judge would send someone to "depose" you. According to the uniform Law on Notarial Acts one person may not take an oath or affirmation for another, this act being highly personal commitment of conscience. As stated at Hebrews 6 an angel or anyone else is not greater than God Himself, that's it. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:40 | comment | added | Kris | Stephen understood that is was angelic representative speaking to Moses. Acts 7:37,38 | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:16 | comment | added | Kris | biblehub.com/text/genesis/22-16.htm. Read the verses here to see that YHWH Yahweh is how the Original Hebrew reads instead of Lord. This clears the confusion. The angel of YHWH says to Abe “by myself I have sworn declares YHWH ......”. So it is Yahweh who is swearing on himself and it is the angel of Yahweh who tells Abe what Yahweh declares. | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:06 | comment | added | Kris | I know because vs 15 -16 says the angel of the Lord called to Abe and said By myself I have sworn ”declares the Lord” | |
| May 18, 2021 at 1:00 | comment | added | Mr. Bond | @Kris How do you know he's quoting God Almighty, from where? Secondly, the angel of the Lord is speaking in the first person. Thirdly, why does the angel of the Lord call out from heaven two times? At Exodus 20:22, the Lord says to Moses, "You yourselves have seen that I have spoken to you from heaven." Fourthly, at Genesis 17:1-2 God Almighty physically appears to Abram and says He will establish His covenant between Him and Abram and will multiply Abram exceedingly." At Genesis 17:22 it confirms that God appeared to him physically. "And when God finished talking, God went up from Abraham." | |
| May 17, 2021 at 22:34 | comment | added | Kris | The angel of the Lord is quoting God Almighty when he says. ”By myself I have sworn because you have done this thing.....I will bless you and multiply your seed....because you have obeyed my voice.” The angel of the Lord is not swearing at all. | |
| May 17, 2021 at 21:41 | history | asked | Mr. Bond | CC BY-SA 4.0 |