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Biblical Hermeneutics

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    Spot on. Just because a verse may be compatible with a doctrine doesn't mean that it itself teaches it. Even Jesus's use of these verses doesn't mean that the original sense was teaching resurrection. Commented Sep 21, 2021 at 4:59
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    Couldn't God just be referring to Moses seeing the land from the vantage point of the mountain where he died, but before he died? Commented Sep 21, 2021 at 15:30
  • I think it's probably more accurate to say "maybe" instead of "no" since we don't know for sure how Moses would have understood that statement. The rest of your answer better agrees with "maybe", so it would be clearer to update it to reflect this. Commented Sep 21, 2021 at 19:30
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    @Austin, I agree. Deut 34:1–4 "And Moses went up from the plains of Moab unto the mountain of Nebo, to the top of Pisgah, that is over against Jericho. And the LORD shewed him all the land of Gilead, unto Dan, And all Naphtali, and the land of Ephraim, and Manasseh, and all the land of Judah, unto the utmost sea, And the south, and the plain of the valley of Jericho […] unto Zoar. And the LORD said unto him, This is the land which I sware unto Abraham [et al.] saying, I will give it unto thy seed: I have caused thee to see it with thine eyes, but thou shalt not go over thither.". Commented Jul 2, 2024 at 16:53
  • Good answer in the first half (+1), but not the "HOWEVER". Commented Jul 2, 2024 at 16:55