You appear to have done your research on this question fairly thoroughly, and may be more knowledgeable on this particular Greek wording than most participants here. I've completed only one course in Greek so far, and my knowledge is limited with respect to the meanings of those Greek terms.

However, I do know something about translation.

I've been involved in multiple Bible translation projects, and have faced the challenges associated with differences in grammar and vocabulary. At the time the Bible was first translated into English (which, whether we like it or not, shaped the language and set many precedents for future translations), were those words "prepuce" or "foreskin" in common use? If so, were they considered vulgar or simply unmentionable? In traditional Thai culture, for example, women may talk somewhat openly about their periods, but for anyone to mention "feet" in public is embarrassing--almost taboo (this culture is changing due to the influx of English, e.g. Hollywood). The words we use are culturally relevant.

To use a Biblical example, even though the word "pregnant" exists in Hebrew and in Greek, it is never used in the KJV translation. It was considered, in that era, to be an embarrassment. The more polite, and formal, way to express the concept was to say "with child." So even though the Hebrew and Greek do not use the word "child" nor reference the fetus directly in any way when speaking of pregnancy, the English translation added that concept to the text for the sake of the propriety of the times.

I would suggest that "foreskin," which is found 14 times in the KJV--all in the Old Testament, may have been been a word that translators preferred to avoid if at all possible. Coming from the Hebrew, it was simply unavoidable, because it was not addressing a concept so much as a body part. But in the Greek, Paul is addressing it on a more philosophical level, and the translators chose what to them seemed a more polite expression.

In some of the Bible translations that I have been working on, the word "foreskin" doesn't even exist in the language. We have to substitute a wording like "cutting ceremony" (and make appropriate grammatical adjustments so that this will even fit). I cringe at this sort of change, but what can be done? The word is not in the language.

I realize that this is not a precise answer, but I expect it will help to put the issue into perspective.

You appear to have done your research on this question fairly thoroughly, and may be more knowledgeable on this particular Greek wording than most participants here. I've completed only one course in Greek so far, and my knowledge is limited with respect to the meanings of those Greek terms.

However, I do know something about translation.

I've been involved in multiple Bible translation projects, and have faced the challenges associated with differences in grammar and vocabulary. At the time the Bible was first translated into English (which, whether we like it or not, shaped the language and set many precedents for future translations), were those words "prepuce" or "foreskin" in common use? If so, were they considered vulgar or simply unmentionable? In traditional Thai culture, for example, women may talk somewhat openly about their periods, but for anyone to mention "feet" in public is embarrassing--almost taboo (this culture is changing due to the influx of English, e.g. Hollywood). The words we use are culturally relevant.

To use a Biblical example, even though the word "pregnant" exists in Hebrew and in Greek, it is never used in the KJV translation. It was considered, in that era, to be an embarrassment. The more polite, and formal, way to express the concept was to say "with child." So even though the Hebrew and Greek do not use the word "child" nor reference the fetus directly in any way when speaking of pregnancy, the English translation added that concept to the text for the sake of the propriety of the times.

I would suggest that "foreskin," which is found 14 times in the KJV--all in the Old Testament, may have been been a word that translators preferred to avoid if at all possible. Coming from the Hebrew, it was simply unavoidable, because it was not addressing a concept so much as a body part. But in the Greek, Paul is addressing it on a more philosophical level, and the translators chose what to them seemed a more polite expression.

In some of the Bible translations that I have been working on, the word "foreskin" doesn't even exist in the language. For "circumcision" or "circumcise" we have to substitute a wording like "cutting ceremony" (and make appropriate grammatical adjustments so that this will even fit). I cringe at this sort of change, but what can be done? The word is not in the language.

I realize that this is not a precise answer, but I expect it will help to put the issue into perspective.