Skip to main content
Biblical Hermeneutics

You are not logged in. Your edit will be placed in a queue until it is peer reviewed.

We welcome edits that make the post easier to understand and more valuable for readers. Because community members review edits, please try to make the post substantially better than how you found it, for example, by fixing grammar or adding additional resources and hyperlinks.

Required fields*

5
  • + 1 This interpretation is important to consider, especially v. 4-5 which sets the tone for the later verses. Indeed several modern translation prefer the Septuagint (creditors/oppressors) here. biblegateway.com/verse/en/Isaiah%203:12 Commented Apr 23, 2023 at 0:40
  • @DanFefferman Thx. However, would my original postings proposed 3rd interpretation be reasonable as well? Commented Apr 23, 2023 at 8:29
  • Thx. However, would my original postings proposed 3rd interpretation be reasonable as well? Commented Apr 23, 2023 at 8:30
  • 1
    @user1338998 - I added some additional material. Perhaps any one of the three interpretation could hold under what is in the Masoretic Text, but I could not find anything in the Talmud or ancient Christian commentaries taking the third position. That is not to say that it could not be read into the text - just that none of the mainstream Jewish or Christian commentaries seem to hold it. Commented Apr 23, 2023 at 12:15
  • 1
    I'm confused about what was in your original posting. If you mean that "women" is written as an insult to weak male rulers then yes, certainly. It could also refer to something we have no information about, such as the influence of the mother of King Ahaz in that king's court. Isaiah 7-8 shows the king in fear in the face of northern Israel and Syria, with the prophet advising him not to worry about that threat. So it does seem that Isaiah thought of Ahaz as "womanly" in that sense. Commented Apr 23, 2023 at 13:46