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Apr 23, 2023 at 13:46 comment added Dan Fefferman I'm confused about what was in your original posting. If you mean that "women" is written as an insult to weak male rulers then yes, certainly. It could also refer to something we have no information about, such as the influence of the mother of King Ahaz in that king's court. Isaiah 7-8 shows the king in fear in the face of northern Israel and Syria, with the prophet advising him not to worry about that threat. So it does seem that Isaiah thought of Ahaz as "womanly" in that sense.
Apr 23, 2023 at 12:15 comment added user33515 @user1338998 - I added some additional material. Perhaps any one of the three interpretation could hold under what is in the Masoretic Text, but I could not find anything in the Talmud or ancient Christian commentaries taking the third position. That is not to say that it could not be read into the text - just that none of the mainstream Jewish or Christian commentaries seem to hold it.
Apr 23, 2023 at 12:13 history edited user33515 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 23, 2023 at 8:30 comment added user1338998 Thx. However, would my original postings proposed 3rd interpretation be reasonable as well?
Apr 23, 2023 at 8:29 comment added user1338998 @DanFefferman Thx. However, would my original postings proposed 3rd interpretation be reasonable as well?
Apr 23, 2023 at 0:40 comment added Dan Fefferman + 1 This interpretation is important to consider, especially v. 4-5 which sets the tone for the later verses. Indeed several modern translation prefer the Septuagint (creditors/oppressors) here. biblegateway.com/verse/en/Isaiah%203:12
Apr 22, 2023 at 21:57 history answered user33515 CC BY-SA 4.0