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May 6, 2024 at 19:48 answer added Jason_ timeline score: 2
Apr 17, 2024 at 15:06 comment added trespda To follow up, this does not seem to be an intentional choice. According to this there was a tendency but no rule for these transliterations. According to a more detailed attempt, it followed Greek conventions as they changed, and can be used to date or provenance Septuagint texts. The letter φ went from representing an aspirated, /pʰ/, to a fricative, /f/. The former consonant seems close enough to] the expected /p/.
Apr 14, 2024 at 21:45 review Close votes
May 12, 2024 at 3:05
Apr 14, 2024 at 21:25 comment added Dottard I suggest you look at the well-known effect of Grimm's law where, as time progresses /p/ morphs into /f/ among other effects. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grimm%27s_law
Apr 14, 2024 at 13:46 comment added Ray Butterworth If you don't get an answer here, wait a while and then ask the question on Latin Language Stack Exchange, which despite its name also answers questions about Greek.
Apr 14, 2024 at 13:03 comment added agarza Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. I also recommend going through the Help Center's sections on both asking and answering questions.
Apr 14, 2024 at 13:03 history edited agarza CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed grammar, link(s) for accessibility
S Apr 14, 2024 at 12:06 review First questions
Apr 14, 2024 at 13:03
S Apr 14, 2024 at 12:06 history asked trespda CC BY-SA 4.0