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    This may be due to an educational lapse on my part, but I am hard pressed to think of a Communist regime that ran a fair election ever, let alone accepted a loss from one. The impression I've gotten is that the elections they have run were as rigged as pro wrestling. Commented Mar 7, 2019 at 5:56
  • 5
    @Jos. why the reminder to be polite? I agree with EvilSnack. To qualify my question: the Communist government in my question need not be elected into power, it just needs to allow free elections once it has power. So, for example, the Soviets took over in 1917 by force. Had they held free election afterwards, then that would answer my question. Ditto Cuba, or China. These governments have been in power for decades now. Commented Mar 7, 2019 at 6:30
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    I think that all Eastern European countries after the fall of the Berlin Wall would qualify? Commented Mar 7, 2019 at 8:45
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    @Amedee: The end of Romania's communist regime was not peaceful Commented Mar 7, 2019 at 12:27
  • 11
    @Greg. I strongly disagree with blending Socialism and Communism. This seems to be an American concept, because, in Europe, there is no confusion whatsoever for a voter whether they are embracing a Communist or a Socialist party. For example, at least traditionally, up to the 80s, European Communist parties explicitly recognized the leadership of the Soviet Communist Party. Tidbit: when PCF(French Comm.) members objected to the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, they got ejected, something the PCF hardly brags about. Commented Mar 7, 2019 at 20:23