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1"First time if he bought a gun with the intent to shoot somebody": which crime is that under which criminal code, and did it exist in 1963?phoog– phoog2025-03-20 20:15:24 +00:00Commented Mar 20, 2025 at 20:15
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2Even if this is true, it's not clear how this would allow him to "legally be stopped" unless he told someone that he was buying a gun for this purpose.JimmyJames– JimmyJames2025-03-20 20:23:42 +00:00Commented Mar 20, 2025 at 20:23
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1@phoog The crime would have been attempted murder or attempted assault and it was on the books in Texas in 1963 (and attempted Presidential assassination was also a federal crime in 1963). Attempt consists of intending to commit a crime and taking a definitive step towards doing so. Proof is distinct from when someone has first committed a crime. It isn't terribly uncommon for law enforcement to lack proof that someone committed a crime for decades after it is committed, or even never. A huge share of all crimes are not "cleared" at any time. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clearance_rateohwilleke– ohwilleke2025-03-21 00:00:41 +00:00Commented Mar 21, 2025 at 0:00
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4@phoog it has been a federal crime to murder a federal official since at least 1948. law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/1114 Attempt crimes are covered in general for all federal crimes.ohwilleke– ohwilleke2025-03-21 01:12:02 +00:00Commented Mar 21, 2025 at 1:12
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2@ohwilleke from the Warren commission report: "There was no Federal criminal jurisdiction over the assassination of President Kennedy. Had there been reason to believe that the assassination was the result of a conspiracy, Federal jurisdiction could have been asserted; it has long been a Federal crime to conspire to injure any Federal officer, on account of, or while he is engaged in, the lawful discharge of the duties of his office.212 Murder of the President has never been covered by Federal law..." archives.gov/research/jfk/warren-commission-report/…phoog– phoog2025-03-22 01:12:41 +00:00Commented Mar 22, 2025 at 1:12
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