Timeline for answer to Do constitutions of civil law countries ban bills of attainder, and if yes, how? by phoog

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Mar 25, 2025 at 18:40	vote	accept	Petr Hudeček
Mar 24, 2025 at 22:36	comment	added	Jirka Hanika		Also notice Article 1 (of the same domestic Charter) which makes Article 40 unrepealable. And Article 9 par. 2 of the Czech constitution which might be construed to make the separation of powers, at least as a general principle, unrepealable. Of course, a revolution or a military catastrophe can uproot any constitution as a whole; and constitutional courts can even be slowly "neutralized", so no entrenchment mechanism is ever absolute.
Mar 24, 2025 at 8:29	comment	added	MSalters		... Specifically, for almost every European country, that's the European Convention on Human Rights. It's mandatory for EU member states and those that wish to join the EU.
Mar 22, 2025 at 21:52	comment	added	ohwilleke		FWIW, in general, in European countries, rights that are protected by the Bill of Rights in U.S. law are frequently protected by a treaty (often a multinational one) in addition or instead of being protected in their constitution. In part, historically, this was because these countries often didn't have entrenched constitutions when these rights started to be protected, and the treaty provided some process that had to be followed to exit the treaty, unlike domestic legislation which could have been more easily amended.
Mar 22, 2025 at 15:52	history	answered	phoog	CC BY-SA 4.0