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3 hours ago history became hot network question
8 hours ago vote accept Frank
9 hours ago answer added Jeremy Rickard timeline score: 6
11 hours ago comment added Ben Steffan I don't follow the argument. Sure, there's a map, but the arrows in $P_\bullet$ do not magically change directions: You get a map from $P_0$ to $M$, and a map from $P_0$ to $P_1$, and a map from $P_1$ to $P_2$, etc. You seem to be suggesting that there should be a map $P_0 \to M$, and a map $P_1 \to P_0$, and a map $P_2 \to P_1$, but where are these wrong-way maps supposed to come from?
11 hours ago comment added Aditya Dwivedi I doubt when you say that $P_{\bullet}$ is a projective resolution in the usual sense. Since the map $P_{n-1} \to P_n$ is already surjective and $P_0 \to P_1$ is not injective, $P_{\bullet}$ is not a resolution.
11 hours ago history asked Frank CC BY-SA 4.0