Timeline for answer to Dirichlet series and Riemann zeta function by user10676
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 30, 2014 at 13:34 | comment | added | Snufsan | Nevermind, Got it! | |
| Jul 30, 2014 at 13:21 | comment | added | Snufsan | Still i cant figure how we got the $2k+1$ factor. we have $$\frac{1}{(1-p^{-s})^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{d(p^k)}{p^{ks}} $$ and then what? | |
| Jul 30, 2014 at 13:15 | comment | added | Semiclassical | @Snufsan: Note that the denominator is the square of an infinite series, and so has a tidy expression as a sum. Multiplying by the numerator then adds to that series a 'shifted' copy of itself, and that gives the simple form shown. | |
| Jul 30, 2014 at 12:58 | comment | added | Snufsan | Could you please explain the transition from $$\frac{1+p^{-s}}{(1-p^{-s})^2}$$ to the infinite sum? | |
| Jul 30, 2014 at 12:53 | vote | accept | Snufsan | ||
| Jul 30, 2014 at 12:57 | |||||
| Jul 30, 2014 at 12:50 | history | answered | user10676 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |