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Compared to the categories of other “common” algebraic objects like groups and rings, it seems that fields as a whole are missing some important properties:

  • There are no initial or terminal objects
  • There are no free fields
  • No products or coproducts
  • Every arrow is a mono (maybe not a bad thing, but still indicates how restrictive the category is)

A logician once told me in passing that part of the reason is that the properties for fields contain a decidedly “weird” property, namely that every element in a field except zero has a multiplicative inverse. If I understood him correctly, this property is sufficiently different from the others that the category of all such objects loses some features. But I have no idea if this was a heuristic or a proven theorem.

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    $\begingroup$ We're sorry. Really. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 1:40
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    $\begingroup$ That basically is why, because it implies there can be no nontrivial maps between different characteristics. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 1:46
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    $\begingroup$ Things look a bit better if you look at the category of fields with a given characteristic: you then get initial objects and free objects. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 2:41
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    $\begingroup$ You don't get free objects (other than the free object on $\varnothing$) – every rational function has a pole somewhere... $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 3:09
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    $\begingroup$ Fields don't form a variety in the universal algebra sense. By the HSP theorem, this means that fields are not closed under either homomorphic images, or subalgebras, or products (where these are defined relative to total operations of multiplication and addition but not the partial operation of division). This lack of algebraic niceness leads to a lack of categorical niceness. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 15:24

2 Answers 2

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There is a precise sense in which the concept of field is not algebraic like, say, the concept of ring or group or vector space etc.: it is a theorem that any kind of mathematical structure that is defined as having a set of elements and some fixed list of total operations of constant finite arity obeying some fixed list of unconditional equations gives rise to a category with certain nice properties (which I omit for the moment). The usual definition of field has a partially defined operation – inversion – as well as an inequality ($0 \ne 1$), which means the theorem is not applicable; the fact that the category of fields does not have the nice properties of algebraic categories tells us there is actually no way of defining fields so that the theorem applies.

So what does being algebraic buy us, and how do we recognise an algebraic category without thinking about the logical form of the definition? Well, a category is equivalent to a category of algebraic structures if and only if it has all of the following properties:

  • It has limits for all small diagrams and colimits for small filtered diagrams.
  • There is an object $A$ such that the functor $\mathrm{Hom} (A, -)$ has a left adjoint, is monadic, and preserves colimits for small filtered diagrams.

In fact, it follows that such a category has colimits for small diagrams in general, but this fact is not needed in the theorem. Note that the object $A$ is not unique up to isomorphism; this is essentially the phenomenon of Morita equivalence.

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    $\begingroup$ Fancy seeing you here! $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 9:48
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    $\begingroup$ @Asaf For some reason I seem to have too much free time these last few months... $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 11:33
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    $\begingroup$ Does the inequality $0\neq 1$ matter so much? Adding the zero ring to the category of fields does not seem to alter the landscape much, since it would be an isolated object anyway. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2020 at 13:59
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    $\begingroup$ There are many (interrelated) reasons for excluding the zero ring. From an algebraic geometry perspective: fields are points, but the zero ring is just empty; from the algebra perspective: the quotient of a commutative ring by an ideal is a field if and only if the ideal is maximal, etc. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 15, 2020 at 1:42
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    $\begingroup$ @Brahadeesh You can find this theorem, and a number of related ones, in Adamek-Rosicky-Vitale's book on algebraic theories. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 15, 2020 at 4:44
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This is a very minor comment on this statement:

The usual definition of field has a partially defined operation – inversion – as well as an inequality ($0 \ne 1$), which means the theorem is not applicable

Actually the issue is not that inversion is partially defined. You can of course extend inversion to a total function $(-)^{-1} : F \to F$ by just declaring that $0^{-1} = 0$. This offends our mathematical sensibilities but it can be done. The issue is that if you do this you still need to state a non-equational axiom, namely that $a \cdot a^{-1} = 1$ for all $\color{red}{a \neq 0}$, and that "$a \neq 0$" part is the real problem.

This $a \neq 0$ requirement prevents fields from being closed under products (by which I don't mean categorical products but cartesian products with inherited operations): as you can see from the fact that $(1, 0)$ and $(0, 1)$ are zero divisors in a product $F_1 \times F_2$ of two fields, the precise issue is that a nonzero element in $F_1 \times F_2$ is not a pair of nonzero elements in $F_1$ and $F_2$. So even if we define $(-)^{-1}$ on $F_1 \times F_2$ pointwise (by either taking the inverse or sending $0$ to $0$), the non-equational axiom above is not satisfied. So, by the easy direction of the HSP theorem fields are not a variety in the sense of universal algebra, as John Coleman says in the comments.


From here we could ask something like: what is the best "equational approximation" to the non-equational field axioms? The simplest one I can think of is that $a \cdot a^{-1} \cdot a = a$, meaning that $a^{-1}$ is a kind of "weak inverse." We could also require that $(a^{-1})^{-1} = a$, which implies $a^{-1} \cdot a \cdot a^{-1} = a^{-1}$, and we could also require $(ab)^{-1} = a^{-1} b^{-1}$. (And we just drop $0 \neq 1$ entirely.) It would be interesting to know whether these, together with the commutative ring axioms, imply all equational axioms satisfied by fields. (Edit: I've asked a question about this here.)

These are perfectly sensible equational axioms and they now hold not only for fields but for all products of fields, if $a^{-1}$ is taken to be the operation which componentwise either inverts or sends $0$ to $0$, as above. They also holds for subrings of products of fields which are closed under weak inverse. The resulting category must in fact have all limits, colimits, etc. now, although the coproduct seems to be strange. I guess there must even be a free such thing on $n$ generators but I don't know what it looks like.

Every ring in this category is von Neumann regular.

Interestingly this category includes all rings satisfying $a^n = a$ for all $a$ and a fixed $n$, where we take $a^{-1} = a^{n-2}$ to be the weak inverse operation; this condition is the subject of a classical theorem of Jacobson, who showed that they are commutative.

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