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  • $\begingroup$ ok cool. so is the idea that f2(x)=good(x)*bad(x) then if bad(a)!=Infinity and good(a)=0 then a is a solution to f2 ? In my example, badFactor/.sol is around 10^16.. can we say that that's not (or not going to) Infinity? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 8, 2012 at 8:53
  • $\begingroup$ As long as neither of sol is 0 then yes, badFactor is finite (but possibly very large). $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 8, 2012 at 9:04
  • $\begingroup$ ...phbbhtt.. my brains are fried. Ocfcourse.. I know what badFactor is.. literally ... I can't believe I asked the second part of the question. :) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 8, 2012 at 9:08