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Jul 21, 2017 at 21:19 comment added Sylvain JULIEN Your question is in some sense dual to asking whether for some prime $ p $ , the set $ W_{p} : =\{k\in\mathbb{N}\colon\{kp-1,kp+1\}\cap P\neq\emptyset\} $, is infinite. For $ p =3$, a positive answer follows from the assumption of the twin prime conjecture.
Jul 21, 2017 at 6:08 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Jul 21, 2017 at 5:26 comment added Robert Israel Yes, in fact for each prime $p$, Dirichlet's theorem says there are infinitely many primes of the form $kp-1$ and infinitely many of the form $kp+1$, so $\bigcup_{k \ge 2} M_k$ consists of all the primes.
Jul 21, 2017 at 5:23 answer added Robert Israel timeline score: 12
Jul 21, 2017 at 4:16 comment added Dominic van der Zypen I would assume one can prove that $\bigcup\{M_k:k\in\mathbb{N}, k\ge 2\}$ is infinite.
Jul 21, 2017 at 4:15 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0