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Sep 24, 2023 at 3:15 vote accept Pablo Spiga
Sep 23, 2023 at 19:14 comment added so-called friend Don @GHfromMO Done.
Sep 23, 2023 at 19:13 answer added so-called friend Don timeline score: 10
Sep 23, 2023 at 18:25 comment added GH from MO @so-calledfriendDon I suggest that you turn your comment into an answer so that this question can be closed.
Sep 23, 2023 at 3:39 comment added Pablo Spiga Great!!! This is what i needed! Thanks.
Sep 22, 2023 at 21:45 comment added so-called friend Don Following up on GH from MO's comment, what you want follows from work of Siegel; a quantiative version could be deduced from this paper of Shorey and Tijdeman: numdam.org/item/CM_1976__33_2_187_0
Sep 22, 2023 at 18:17 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 22, 2023 at 18:16 comment added GH from MO What you really want to prove is this: for fixed $n$, the largest prime factor of $\Phi_n(p)$ tends to infinity (as $p$ runs through the primes).
Sep 22, 2023 at 17:40 comment added Pablo Spiga I did not know the definition of smooth number, I've just looked that up. You are right that there is a connection to smoothness. Using this terminology I am asking to prove that, for $n \ge 3$, either $\Phi_n(p)$ is not $c$-smooth, or $p$ is small (in terms of $c$). I do not see how the results if Stewart and Yu are helpful here.
Sep 22, 2023 at 16:51 comment added Stanley Yao Xiao If I am interpreting the question correctly, what you are asking is that either $\Phi_n(p)$ is not $g(p)$-smooth for some function $g$ tending to infinity, and to give some sort of growth rate for $g$. I believe this is possible using some type of quantitative analogue of the $abc$-conjecture, for example due to Stewart and Yu.
Sep 22, 2023 at 15:57 history asked Pablo Spiga CC BY-SA 4.0