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$\begingroup$ If X proved that $P(n)\implies Q(n)$, and if it is "likely but not proved" that $P(n)$ holds for infinitely many $n$, is it then "likely but not proved" that X established $Q(n)$ for infinitely many $n$? Consider the degenerate case $P(n)=Q(n)$. $\endgroup$

user14111
– user14111

2026-03-31 23:00:19 +00:00
Commented 5 hours ago
3

$\begingroup$ I guess there is a difference between "(X proved $P(n)$) for infinitely many $n$" and "X proved ($P(n)$ for infinitely many $n$)". $\endgroup$

user14111
– user14111

2026-03-31 23:03:14 +00:00
Commented 5 hours ago

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