Timeline for answer to Was Fermat's Last Theorem known for infinitely many primes before Wiles? by Alexandre Eremenko
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 5 hours ago | comment | added | user14111 | I guess there is a difference between "(X proved $P(n)$) for infinitely many $n$" and "X proved ($P(n)$ for infinitely many $n$)". | |
| 5 hours ago | comment | added | user14111 | If X proved that $P(n)\implies Q(n)$, and if it is "likely but not proved" that $P(n)$ holds for infinitely many $n$, is it then "likely but not proved" that X established $Q(n)$ for infinitely many $n$? Consider the degenerate case $P(n)=Q(n)$. | |
| 6 hours ago | history | answered | Alexandre Eremenko | CC BY-SA 4.0 |