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Music: Practice & Theory

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  • Can you clarify whether the first bar with Cm7 is supposed to have a sixteenth rest or not? You have a rest in the first version, but it also has a pedal mark, so there will be sound, not rest/silence as notated. The second version clearly has not rest. So, which is it supposed to be rest or no rest? Commented yesterday
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    @MichaelCurtis - wasn't that the point of the question? Commented yesterday
  • @Tim, IMO, no. First the OP needs to say what they intend, then you notate it clearly. Since they wrote confusing notation, seem hung up on notation technicalities, they should say in plain English what they intend. It's objective, but to me, a rest is more intentional that a pedal mark. So, I just want to simple answer, did they intend any silence? Commented yesterday
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    Underlying point to be clear on: Rhythmic notation doesn't explicitly tell you what to do with your hands. It tells you how long the sound should be, and you figure out what to do with your hands to make that happen. (Second layer of nuance: It doesn't necessarily tell exactly how long the sound should be to a given level of precision. It can just be a general representation of a concept.) Commented 19 hours ago
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    @AndyBonner seems to be spot on concerning the underlying confusion. Or to make his point less tactfully (in order to make it clearer why it does not make sense to use rhythmic notation this way): why is it so important that the player must continue holding down the first chord until precisely one sixteenth of a beat before playing the next one? If it's not important, why are you trying to micromanage the player into doing that? Commented 13 hours ago