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4"Every body of knowledge has to have a teleology for which it's designed. " WHY ?Mauro ALLEGRANZA– Mauro ALLEGRANZA2019-11-24 14:42:05 +00:00Commented Nov 24, 2019 at 14:42
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What does an answer to this question look like to you? (For instance, would the idea be relevant that one goal of logic is clearer, more consistent and more coherent thinking and speaking?) —It might also help to share what you might have been reading or studying that sparked this question, or made it interesting/important from a philosophical perspective to youJoseph Weissman– Joseph Weissman2019-11-24 14:44:56 +00:00Commented Nov 24, 2019 at 14:44
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Welcome to SE Philosophy! Thanks for your contribution. Please take a quick moment to take the tour or find help. You can perform searches here or seek additional clarification at the meta site. Don't forget, when someone has answered your question, you can click on the checkmark to reward the user!J D– J D2019-11-24 15:01:39 +00:00Commented Nov 24, 2019 at 15:01
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I think I know what you are asking. In an important sense teleology is gone, it is an historical artifact. But what you are speaking of seems more to me like Sociology of Knowledge study of ideology (broadly construed). For instance, what is really going on with all this “logic talk” and so on, what is the net effect, what is the philosophical “big move”? The problem is Sociology of Knowledge is almost dead today. It probably should not be dead, it may wake up again.Gordon– Gordon2019-11-24 16:14:48 +00:00Commented Nov 24, 2019 at 16:14
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1You are in the right track imo. Your intuition is good. The fact-value dichotomy came out of logical positivism. You may want to read Hilary Putnam’s book on the subject. Here is a video with Putnam discussing the problem. I apologize to other members that I keep posting this video. If this video means nothing to you now, it think it will one day as you continue to pursue your thoughts. m.youtube.com/watch?v=oLJfEVu3kbYGordon– Gordon2019-11-24 16:49:03 +00:00Commented Nov 24, 2019 at 16:49
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