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1$\begingroup$ bechira: I find it very difficult to reconcile your answer with W. Rindler's dictum: "We should, strictly speaking, differentiate between an inertial frame and an inertial coordinate system {...} An inertial frame is simply an infinite set of point particles sitting still in space relative to each other.". Does "point $p$" in your answer mean "point particle $p$" (as for Rindler), or does it instead mean "element $p$ of the manifold" ?? $\endgroup$user12262– user122622015-04-02 16:56:41 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2015 at 16:56
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$\begingroup$ $p$ is a point in spacetime (or slightly more confusingly, some people call it an event). $\endgroup$zzz– zzz2015-04-02 17:13:11 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2015 at 17:13
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$\begingroup$ bechira: "$p$ is a point in spacetime [...]" -- Well, then your answer is all the harder to relate to W. Rindler's notion; because, surely, any one of Rindler's "point particles" would be characterized by a (suitable) set of several "points in spacetime". Also: Shouldn't your answer therefore have referred to "Poincaré transformations", or some suitable generalization(s) of those, instead of "Lorentz transformations, as expected." ?? $\endgroup$user12262– user122622015-04-02 17:26:27 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2015 at 17:26
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$\begingroup$ Not sure what you're getting at, why would local frames at the same point on a general spacetime be related by a translation? Also didn't read that article by Rindler yet, so really not sure what notion of a point particle you're using, I can post a reply later. $\endgroup$zzz– zzz2015-04-02 18:19:34 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2015 at 18:19
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$\begingroup$ But looking at the diagrams it looks like the usual introduction to special relativity - I would take a point particle to be a timelike curve $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow M$ (assuming Lorentzian metric). The point $p$ I'm referring to above is a single point in $M$. $\endgroup$zzz– zzz2015-04-02 18:23:07 +00:00Commented Apr 2, 2015 at 18:23
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