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Mar 30, 2023 at 16:59 comment added Quillo Yes, see also this: physics.stackexchange.com/a/757441/226902
Nov 17, 2016 at 2:16 vote accept Phi
Nov 16, 2016 at 8:11 answer added valerio timeline score: 3
Nov 16, 2016 at 7:12 history edited Qmechanic
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Nov 16, 2016 at 4:03 comment added user36790 If $|p\rangle$ is a base state, then $\hat p|p\rangle ~=~ p|p\rangle\,.$
Nov 16, 2016 at 3:52 comment added Gert Yes. $\langle p\rangle$ and $\langle \hat{p}\rangle$ are synonymous, as the formulas show.
Nov 16, 2016 at 3:52 history edited user36790 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 16, 2016 at 3:41 history asked Phi CC BY-SA 3.0