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My understanding is that, in the context of quantum field theory, particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter. The, and the terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields.? For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number somehowperhaps more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

My understanding is that, in the context of quantum field theory, particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter. The terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields. For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number somehow more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

My understanding is that, in the context of quantum field theory, particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter, and the terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields? For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number perhaps more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

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My understanding is that, in the context of quantum field theory, particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter. The terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields. For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number somehow more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

My understanding is that particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter. The terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields. For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number somehow more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

My understanding is that, in the context of quantum field theory, particles arise as a computational tool. We perform an expansion in the path integral in some parameter. The terms in these expansions correspond to Feynman diagrams which can be interpreted as interactions between particles.

My question: if particles are just a computational tool, why does it seem like particles really exist, and not quantum fields. For example, it seems like chemical reactions really do occur through the exchange of discrete particles called electrons. Are states with definite particle number somehow more probable, more easily observed, or some kind of classical limit?

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