Timeline for answer to How exactly does the double blockade in the Strait of Hormuz work? by Therac
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| 2 days ago | comment | added | Therac | @user111403 That was largely the intent: to make only top naval powers able to declare blockades. Iran is basically rewriting the law more than interpreting it. | |
| 2 days ago | comment | added | user111403 | Clear enough, thanks for the edit. In practice though it seems like this means one can only impose a blockade at the point of destination, rather than the point of departure. Which, cynically, one might say is rather convenient for a handful of powerful countries. | |
| 2 days ago | comment | added | Therac | @user111403 Attacking Israeli and US ships is completely legal. But Iran is extending the threat to ships which have merely done trade with Israel in the past. | |
| 2 days ago | history | edited | Therac | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| 2 days ago | comment | added | user111403 | Why exactly would it be illegal for Iran to attack Israeli and aligned ships transiting the strait, but legal for the US to attack ships coming to/from Iran? Israel is hardly a neutral country. | |
| 2 days ago | history | edited | Therac | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| 2 days ago | history | answered | Therac | CC BY-SA 4.0 |