Timeline for Mixed effect model, number of random effects and fixed effects
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 5, 2024 at 15:58 | vote | accept | Sos | ||
| Nov 30, 2023 at 11:38 | answer | added | BenP | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 30, 2023 at 10:47 | answer | added | Robert Long | timeline score: 5 | |
| Nov 29, 2023 at 16:04 | comment | added | Sointu | There's nothing wrong with your code as such. You can very well include a random slope of a categorical predictor, though it may feel strange to call it a slope because what you get is a contrast estimate for each subject. I'm not sure if the fact that you only have 2 observations per subject causes some issues though (in the example you link, they had several observations for each modality per subject). | |
| Nov 28, 2023 at 16:08 | comment | added | Sos |
I'm basically following the tutorial here, and if you see on page 21 it is very similar to what I am doing above. The author indicates lmer(RT~ 1 + modality + (1 + modality | PID) + (1 + modality|stim), data=data) where modality is a 2 factor categorical variable (fixed effects) and PID is the subject id.
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| Nov 28, 2023 at 16:05 | comment | added | Sos | Sorry, this might all be going over my head, but isn't that the case every time you want to evaluate the extent onto which a covariate may have, together with a predictor, on an outcome? | |
| Nov 28, 2023 at 13:43 | comment | added | user2974951 |
Let me clarify, how do you define a random slope for group?
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| Nov 28, 2023 at 13:39 | comment | added | Sos | Sorry but I dont understand the issue. I've seen plenty of examples with 2 categories as fixed variables (example: ed.ac.uk/biomedical-sciences/…) | |
| Nov 28, 2023 at 13:34 | comment | added | user2974951 |
How do you define a slope for variable group which is a categorical variable?
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| Nov 28, 2023 at 13:06 | history | asked | Sos | CC BY-SA 4.0 |