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Oct 11, 2022 at 15:15 vote accept bzd
Oct 6, 2022 at 11:10 answer added PAEP timeline score: 2
Oct 3, 2022 at 12:52 answer added Andrew timeline score: 4
Oct 3, 2022 at 2:34 history edited orthocresol CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 2, 2022 at 13:41 answer added porphyrin timeline score: 2
Oct 2, 2022 at 5:43 comment added uhoh Do their wave functions have any angular dependence? If $n=1$ then $l=0$, so $Y_l^m(\theta, \psi)$ which has $\exp(im \phi)$ and $P_l^m(\cos \theta)$ dependence should be constant. I'm not very good at this, but I don't see any place where a phase can be defined. Unless their spins are opposite I don't think there's any other way that they can differ unless you excite one of them to $n > 1$.
Oct 2, 2022 at 3:02 comment added bzd @uhoh By "opposite phase" I was imagining, whether the two 1 electron orbitals could be "out of phase" with respect to each other, similar to how we can write $1σ^*$ as linear combination of two out of phase 1s orbitals.
Oct 2, 2022 at 1:00 comment added uhoh What does "opposite phase" actually mean in this context? Could you add a definition of what you think it does? Thanks, and Welcome to Stack Exchange!
S Oct 1, 2022 at 20:59 review First questions
Oct 1, 2022 at 23:15
S Oct 1, 2022 at 20:59 history asked bzd CC BY-SA 4.0