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Questions tagged [homophones]

Homophones are words that are pronounced the same but have different meanings. They aren't necessarily spelled the same.

1 vote
2 answers
210 views

In the video at 0.41 she uses the phrase “gaff/ gaffe themselves”. The dictionary lists many meanings, pronunciation is same for both the words and I am mentioning those I feel could be of relevance....
Dusky muse's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
1k views

Rescind and resend are homophones and easily confused words. The following sentence uses both words correctly: Cilla was beside herself with anxiety: had Tyler rescinded his interest taking her to the ...
Dan Jacobson's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
120 views

I am not an expert in languages and this is my first question here... To my understanding, most of the languages were spoken before writing was discovered/evolved. What would cause a language to have ...
user871199's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
270 views

Discovered a weird bit of pronunciation distinction in friends today, between three words: lair (as in home to monster) layer (as in levels of a cake) layer (as in "one who lays things down"...
ShadowRanger's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
644 views

I know that the words there, their, and they're are homophones, but I can't help but think that their has a slight /j/ between /e/ and /r/ (/ðer/). This thought didn't just come to me out of nowhere- ...
Алексей Блащук's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
248 views

I know that final -⟨ng⟩ is pronounced /ŋ/ (in most dialects), but I'm wondering what happens when the intensifier "ass" comes after the /ŋ/ sound of "long". Does the pronunciation ...
Jafar's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
877 views

I am curious if there is a relationship between the words "impune" (to make immune/protect) and "impugn" (to attack/call into question).
user7264's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
6k views

By not materialistic I mean someone who just doesn't have interest in material things for the sake of the value it would give them from their possession, but rather acquires them for their ...
JJrussel's user avatar
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-2 votes
1 answer
445 views

How did the English language come to have two words, “raze” and “raise” that mean practically opposite things, but sound the same? Merriam Webster definitions Raze: to destroy to the ground Raise: to ...
codedude's user avatar
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7 votes
2 answers
379 views

Is there a term for words that are spelled the same way they are pronounced? If so, is there a list of them somewhere? For example, I have thought of: "a" spelled A pronounced "A" ...
ryan's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
477 views

Gel and jel are homophones, but why g sounds as j in that case (and similar words as gelatin)? Is it related to word origin? Borrowed from French gélatine (“jelly, gel”), from Italian gelatina (“...
Ori Marko's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
381 views

From Wikipedia: There are sites, for example, this archived page, which have lists of homonyms or rather homophones and even 'multinyms' which have as many as seven spellings. In English, there ...
brainchild's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
16k views

I believe the noun is practice and the verb is practise, as demonstrated in; The doctor with a private practice practises privately However, if I wanted to say: It is good practi(s/c)e to colour-...
Malted_Wheaties's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
1k views

One example of a linguistic distinction being lost in English is the merger of the th merging into f in the British accent (Telegraph Article). Another example of the th sound being lost is in the ...
egg's user avatar
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0 votes
0 answers
579 views

My friend and I are both native speakers of Australian English. He thinks "one" and "won" sound different and feels "a one-liner" sounds wrong and should be "an one-liner". He does think the two ...
hippietrail's user avatar
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