Timeline for answer to Why does the Bible say that Abraham sacrificed his "only-begotten son"? by Yochanan Mauritz Hummasti

5 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Jul 14, 2017 at 18:45	comment	added	elika kohen		Yochanan - 1.) This answer implicitly suggests the two "cases" are analogous - they are not. Jepthah was the son of a harlot, (זָנָה, Judges 11:1 Hebrew Interlinear). B.) Although it is *plausible* that Abraham observed "Lipit-Ishtar" it becomes *probable if and only if* you were to provide other clear references that Abraham actually observed this "code". C.) It might be helpful to include: `"§25 If a man married his wife and she bore him children and those children are living, and a slave also bore children ..."`
Dec 13, 2016 at 18:33	comment	added	James Shewey		Hello Yochanan, this is an excellent answer, but it did not follow our formatting recommendations. For example, it wasn't clear where the Hepner quote ended, and I had to look that up. I have edited it to clarify and used our formatting recommendations and I hope this will provide a helpful example of what we hope to see in answers going forward. You can look at the exact markdown I used here. Thanks for this answer!
Dec 13, 2016 at 18:31	history	edited	James Shewey	CC BY-SA 3.0	Better formatting answer.
Dec 1, 2016 at 3:36	review	Late answers
Dec 13, 2016 at 18:34
Dec 1, 2016 at 3:20	history	answered	Yochanan Mauritz Hummasti	CC BY-SA 3.0