Consider a measure space $(S,\mu)$ and assume that $\mu(S)=1$. We consider the quantile function (or nonincreasing rearrangement) of a real valued function $f:S\to\mathbb{R}$ as the function \begin{equation} Hf(x)=\inf\{u>0:\mu(f>u)\leq x\}. \end{equation} For $w:[0,1]\to[1,\infty)$ a nonincreasing positive function, consider \begin{equation} \rho(f)=\int_0^1w(x)Hf(x)^p\mathrm{d}x \end{equation} and define $B$ as the collection of all $f:S\to \mathbb{R}$ such that $\rho(|f|)<\infty$.
Problem. It is not too difficult to show that $\|f\|=\rho(|f|)^{1/p}$ defines a (semi-)norm, which makes $(B,\|\cdot\|)$ a normed space. The question is whether this normed space is a Banach space?
To begin, the norm $\|\cdot\|$ satisfies the ideal property in that for any $|g|\leq |f|$, if $f\in B$, then $g\in B$ and $\|g\|\leq \|f\|$. According to the article Banach function spaces done right, if $(B,\|\cdot\|)$ has the so-called Fatou property, that is if $0\leq f_n\uparrow f$ for $(f_n)_{n\geq 1}$ in $B$ and $\sup_{n\geq 1}\|f_n\|<\infty$, then $f\in B$ and $\|f\|=\sup_{n\geq 1}\|f_n\|$, then $(B,\|\cdot\|)$ is complete. Yet, I seem to be stuck in actually providing an affirmative answer (or counter-example) to the question on whether $(B,\|\cdot\|)$ is a Banach space.
Any help is welcome!