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Vincent Thacker
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Absolute value of atomicthe total magnetic moment $|\mu|$of an electron in an atom

The magnetic moment operator being

${\mu} = -\frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L+2\,S)$,

a $$\mu = -\frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}(L+2S),$$ a direct evaluation of its absolute value would be

$|\mu| = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L^2+4\,S^2+4\,L\cdot S)^{1/2}$

whose $$|\mu| = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}(L^2 + 4S^2 + 4L\cdot S)^{1/2}$$ whose expectation value is

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = \mu_B \left[ 2j(j+1) - l(l+1) +2\,s(s+1) \right]^{1/2}$.

in $$\langle|\mu|\rangle = \mu_\text{B} \left[ 2j(j+1) - l(l+1) +2s(s+1)\right]^{1/2}$$ in which we have used the equality $~~2\,L\cdot S = J^2 - L^2 - S^2$$2L \cdot S = J^2 - L^2 - S^2$.

Now, a different approach could be to use the proportionality of $\mu$ and $J$ through the Landè g-factor $\mu = -g_J \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}J$,

$\mu = -g_J \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar} J$

which which would give

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}\,g_J(J^2)^{1/2} = \mu_B\,g_J[j(j+1)]^{1/2} = \mu_B[(\frac{3}{2}+\frac{s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)})][j(j+1)]^{1/2}$

which $$\langle|\mu|\rangle = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}g_J(J^2)^{1/2} = \mu_\text{B} g_J[j(j+1)]^{1/2} \\ = \mu_\text{B} \left[\frac{3}{2}+\frac{s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)}\right][j(j+1)]^{1/2}$$ which is clearly different from the equation above. Putting some values for $l$, $s$, and $j$, one indeed obtains different results.

I tend to think that the first result is correct, but I cannot think about valid reasons to confute the second derivation.

Absolute value of atomic magnetic moment $|\mu|$

The magnetic moment operator being

${\mu} = -\frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L+2\,S)$,

a direct evaluation of its absolute value would be

$|\mu| = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L^2+4\,S^2+4\,L\cdot S)^{1/2}$

whose expectation value is

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = \mu_B \left[ 2j(j+1) - l(l+1) +2\,s(s+1) \right]^{1/2}$.

in which we have used the equality $~~2\,L\cdot S = J^2 - L^2 - S^2$.

Now, a different approach could be to use the proportionality of $\mu$ and $J$ through the Landè g-factor,

$\mu = -g_J \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar} J$

which would give

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}\,g_J(J^2)^{1/2} = \mu_B\,g_J[j(j+1)]^{1/2} = \mu_B[(\frac{3}{2}+\frac{s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)})][j(j+1)]^{1/2}$

which is clearly different from the equation above. Putting some values for $l$, $s$, and $j$ one indeed obtains different results.

I tend to think that the first result is correct, but I cannot think about valid reasons to confute the second derivation.

Absolute value of the total magnetic moment of an electron in an atom

The magnetic moment operator being $$\mu = -\frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}(L+2S),$$ a direct evaluation of its absolute value would be $$|\mu| = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}(L^2 + 4S^2 + 4L\cdot S)^{1/2}$$ whose expectation value is $$\langle|\mu|\rangle = \mu_\text{B} \left[ 2j(j+1) - l(l+1) +2s(s+1)\right]^{1/2}$$ in which we have used the equality $2L \cdot S = J^2 - L^2 - S^2$.

Now, a different approach could be to use the proportionality of $\mu$ and $J$ through the Landè g-factor $\mu = -g_J \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}J$, which would give $$\langle|\mu|\rangle = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_\text{B}}{\hbar}g_J(J^2)^{1/2} = \mu_\text{B} g_J[j(j+1)]^{1/2} \\ = \mu_\text{B} \left[\frac{3}{2}+\frac{s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)}\right][j(j+1)]^{1/2}$$ which is clearly different from the equation above. Putting some values for $l$, $s$, and $j$, one indeed obtains different results.

I tend to think that the first result is correct, but I cannot think about valid reasons to confute the second derivation.

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Qmechanic
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cipper
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Absolute value of atomic magnetic moment $|\mu|$

The magnetic moment operator being

${\mu} = -\frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L+2\,S)$,

a direct evaluation of its absolute value would be

$|\mu| = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}(L^2+4\,S^2+4\,L\cdot S)^{1/2}$

whose expectation value is

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = \mu_B \left[ 2j(j+1) - l(l+1) +2\,s(s+1) \right]^{1/2}$.

in which we have used the equality $~~2\,L\cdot S = J^2 - L^2 - S^2$.

Now, a different approach could be to use the proportionality of $\mu$ and $J$ through the Landè g-factor,

$\mu = -g_J \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar} J$

which would give

$\langle|\mu|\rangle = (\mu^2)^{1/2} = \frac{\mu_B}{\hbar}\,g_J(J^2)^{1/2} = \mu_B\,g_J[j(j+1)]^{1/2} = \mu_B[(\frac{3}{2}+\frac{s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)})][j(j+1)]^{1/2}$

which is clearly different from the equation above. Putting some values for $l$, $s$, and $j$ one indeed obtains different results.

I tend to think that the first result is correct, but I cannot think about valid reasons to confute the second derivation.