I know usen’t isn’t used in everyday English, but how about using it in an exam, an essay, or a formal letter?
Is it right to use usen’t instead of didn’t use to?
I know usen’t isn’t used in everyday English, but how about using it in an exam, an essay, or a formal letter?
Is it right to use usen’t instead of didn’t use to?
The only use of "usen't" I've ever heard was by W. C. Fields in "Never Give a Sucker an Even Break." He says it to the churlish waitress in the diner scene (at 2:48 of the video clip):
"Usen't you be an old follies girl?"
I agree that "usen't" is inappropriate in formal writing. However, it is found frequently in literature, though almost exclusively in dialogue (or stream of consciousness monologues). For example:
In classical literature:
20th century novelists:
21st century novelists:
Samuel Beckett also uses "usen't" in Embers:
Henry: I usen't to need anyone, just to myself, stories, there was a great one about an old fellow called Bolton, I never finished it, I never finished any of them, I never finished anything, everything always went on for ever. (Pause.)
Good enough for him, good enough for anyone.
Note that usen't occurs only in the idiom used to.
It never occurs elsewhere. So we're talking about an idiom here.
Every example of usen't presented here requires a to after it. The to indicates that it's followed by an infinitive.
Also note that the idiom used to is pronounced strangely.
Used is normally pronounced /yuzd/, with a /z/; but the idiom used to
is pronounced /'yustə/, with an /s/ (and normal reduction of the final vowel to schwa).
So the question arises as to how usen't to is sposta be pronounced:
The question arises because this particular contraction is sposta be spoken, right? All the examples are dialog. But nobody talks like that any more, and therefore nobody knows how to pronounce usen't any more. So it's basically dead. And it won't have an afterlife, like ain't, which is healthy and happy in English speaker's mouths. But *usen't to ain't ain't.