I've recently argued for a while with a friend about whether defamation requires intent in cases where a false statement would normally be unforeseen to have any potential impact.
The specific scenario we discussed was as such:
Person A tells person B that person C's favorite number is 6, knowing this to be false.
B then refuses to sign a business deal with C because they hate the number 6 and everyone associated with it, and refuses to believe C when they say 6 is not their favorite number, as they found A particularly convincing.
A was unaware that B hates the number 6, and thus couldn't foresee that saying such a thing would be defamatory, even though they knew it to be false (and, to my understanding, "one's favorite number is 6" isn't something considered to be generally damaging to one's reputation).
Would C have a claim for defamation against A, given that A didn't have intent to defame C ? (even though they're the direct cause of B refusing to do business with C and the harm thusly inflicted on C, and A did in fact intentionally and knowingly lie to B, even without any intent to defame).
I am also wondering if this would change if the statement was about something that would be rarely ever be defamatory but could plausibly be foreseen to be such. For instance, we could reword things slightly:
A tells B that C has a cat, and (unbeknownst to A) B is allergic to cats and thus refuses to go to C's house to sign a commercial deal that has to be signed within a few hours (and C can't convince B fast enough that they don't have a cat or sign the deal elsewhere).
Though saying someone has a cat would not ordinarily be defamatory, some people are allergic to cats, and it seems foreseeable that some would thus find that statement damaging if they happened to be allergic to cats - would that change things ?
Also, we also thought it might be possible that other torts would be applicable w.r.t. economic harm or tortuous interference - it seemed to me that those would require specific intent, but I wouldn't mind knowing if they were somehow applicable here either.
(PS: no idea if slander/libel differences are relevant here - this scenario seems like it could plausibly be either depending on the precise method of communication A uses to "tell" B things (direct spoken meeting or some messaging service))