So I tried looking around for this question, but I didn't find much of anything - mostly unrelated-but-similarly-worded stuff. So either I suck at Googling or whatever but I'll get to the point.
So far in my coursework, it seems like we've mostly taken for granted that $(\mathbb{R},+,\cdot)$ is a field. I'm not doubting that much, that would seem silly. However, my question is: how would one prove this? In particular, how would one prove that $(\mathbb{R},+)$ and $(\mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}, \cdot)$ are closed under their respective operations?
I understand the definition of closure, but to say "a real number plus/times a real number is a real number" seems oddly circular since, without demonstrating that, it essentially invokes the assumptions we're trying to prove. Obviously, there's something "more" to the definition of "real number" that would make proving this possible.
Though I'm not sure what property would be used for this.
One thought I dwelled on for a while was instead looking at what the real numbers are not. For example, they are numbers lacking those "imaginary" components you see in their higher-dimensional generalizations - the complex numbers ($i$), quaternions ($i,j,k$), and so on. But that didn't seem quite "right" to me? Like I'm not sure if it's really wrong, it just irked me in some way. Like it's simple enough to say "a real number is any complex number with a zero imaginary component," take two real numbers, show their imaginary parts sum/multiply to zero, and thus we have a real number.
Maybe it's just a personal issue? Like I said - I'm not saying it's inherently wrong (it might be, though, I don't know - if it is, I would like to know why). Maybe it's just the whole idea of "defining a number by what's it's not" that bugs me. Like I said, I'm not really sure, and I think I'm rambling/unclear enough as it is, so I'll get straight to the point.
In short, how does one properly demonstrate, if not in the above way, $$a,b \in \mathbb{R} \Rightarrow (a+b)\in \mathbb{R}$$ $$a,b\in \mathbb{R \setminus \{0\}} \Rightarrow (a\cdot b) \in \mathbb{R \setminus \{0\}}$$
(And again, I'm not at all doubting that these are true. I'm just curious as to how one would demonstrate these facts in the most appropriate manner since I don't believe it's come up in my coursework and I've been curious on how one would prove it for a few days now.)