I saw 2 questions similar to mine, however I cannot seem to understand how to prove mine:
Uniformly bounded derivative implies uniform convergence
Uniform convergence, Bounded derivative.
The question: Let $f_n(x):[0,1] \to \mathbb R$ be a sequence of differentiable functions on $[0,1]$. Suppose:
- $\lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ exists $\forall x\in [a,b]$
- The derivatives, $|f_n’|\le3$ $\forall n \in \mathbb N$.
Prove: $sup_x|f_n(x)-f(x)|\to 0$ as $n\to \infty$. Hint : use Heine–Borel theorem.
My thoughts for now:
- prove that the sequence converge uniformly to $f(x)$ on a small open interval $(x-\delta,x+\delta)$ for all x
- by using Heine-Borel theorem I can conclude that it happens on the whole $[0,1]$.
I don't understand how to start the first part.