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$$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{x^{2}+bx+c}{x-n}=\infty $$

recalling the trinomial of the form:

$$ x^{2}+bx+c=(x+n)(x+m) $$

for some $n$ and $m$ such that

$$ m+n=c $$ $$ m\cdot n=b $$

$$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{(x+n)(x+m)}{x-n} $$

And I don't know how to simplify

$$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{x+n}{x-n}\cdot (x+m) $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Why not let $x^2+bx+c=(x-n)(x-m)$ instead? Anyway, the method is not correct from the beginning. We do not always have a real number $m$ to satisfy $(x+n)(x+m)=x^2+bx+c$ for known $b$, $c$ and $n$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 3 at 17:27
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    $\begingroup$ Hint: $\dfrac{x^2+bx+c}{x-n}=x+?+\dfrac{?}{x-n}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 3 at 17:29

2 Answers 2

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Well, you don't need these constants; in fact, you have$$\lim_{x\to +\infty} \frac{x^{2}+bx+c}{x-n}=\lim_{x\to +\infty}x\cdot\frac{1+\frac{b}{x}+\frac{c}{x^2}}{1-\frac{n}{x}}$$ because you can multiply by $\frac{1}{x^2}$ both the numerator and denominator and obtain this form. So, you know that
$$\lim_{x\to +\infty}x=+\infty$$ and $$\lim_{x\to +\infty}\frac{1+\frac{b}{x}+\frac{c}{x^2}}{1-\frac{n}{x}}=1$$ So thanks to how limits work, you are done. Clearly the same result holds for $-\infty$.

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In any polynomial, the leading term dominates the others, and in products or quotients, you can ignore the other terms. Hence,

$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{p_mx^m}{q_nx^n}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{p_m}{q_n}x^{m-n}.$$

When $m<n$, the limit is $0$; when $m=n$, $\dfrac{p_m}{q_n}$, and when $m>n$, $\infty$ with the sign of $\dfrac{p_m}{q_n}$.

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