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I am trying to understand this concept (and everything in Signals and Systems) intuitively. If we look at a typical square wave to box example of this, I understand that when instructors explain moving from Fourier Series sum to Fourier Transform integral by making a desired signal periodic and increasing the period to infinity it can't be the same as simply having the harmonics on the Frequency spectrum condense, because we aren't stretching the time signal, the key is that we're also keeping the interesting portion of the signal the same width and just letting zero parts on the left and right increase. But I can't quite understand why that causes the existing frequency spectrum to have the same envelope and just more densely populated frequencies. I feel like understanding this might make me have a stronger understanding of this subject so I was wondering if I could find an explanation for this. Thank you!

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  • $\begingroup$ It doesn't have "the same spectrum, just denser". The spectra are fundamentally different, and I'm afraid there's no intuitive access to distribution theory you would need to understand to link the Fourier Sum to the Fourier Integral through the "limit period to infinit" process that you describe. You're essentially acting as if a "dirac delta multiplied with a real number" is the same as "a real number", and it's really really not! $\endgroup$ Commented 9 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ It's gonna be a good example of the Riemann Sum becoming the Riemann Integral. Have you done that sorta thing before? $\endgroup$ Commented 6 hours ago

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I think the main problem is that people draw the "lollipops" that represent the individual values in a Fourier sum into the same diagram as a function curve, and forget to mention that this only works "visually". As soon as you'd do something like an integral over that (and that's what the inverse Fourier transform is), these isolated points would "integrate to nothing":
An integral doesn't "care" about isolated points with bounded values.

If you want to take these coefficients of a Fourier Sum and want to do similar things, you need to take them and multiply them with magic functionals – Dirac impulses – that are zero everywhere but at the position they are shifted to, and there, they don't have an actual value, but integrating over them gives the integral 1.

Now. You can't draw "a functional that's 0 everywhere but diverges at one point, at which you can only measure it by integrating over it". That's not drawable.

So people draw lollipops of some height $h$ and mean

here's a Dirac impulse, multiplied with $h$, so if you integrate across the position of the lollipop, you get value $h$ from your integral.

But: that's simply not "compatible" with the idea of "moving points closer together": because, the energy before and after transform needs to stay the same, that would mean these lollipos would need to get smaller and smaller – you're integrating more of them. Before you can make the transition from sum to integral, they'd become all zero-height.

But that's not happening. We're not "moving points together, until they become dense". (That's also impossible, mathematically: no matter how many points you add, you can always say, this is the first point, this one was added later, this one was added later, and so; you can count them. No set that is countable contains enough points to be dense in the integral sense.)

Instead, you'd follow the typical textbook logic of showing, from the other side, that for functions that are simply not square-integrable, like the humble $e^{j2\pi ft}$, the simplest of all harmonic signals, we still want to define a Fourier transform. To do that, we want that transform such that it gives value "0" for every point but at frequency $f$, and thus, when the inverse Fourier transform integrates across that point, the inverse Fourier integral must take the value $e^{j2\pi ft}$. From that, you decide you need something like the Dirac impulse, and show that the coefficients from Fourier sums are the same as the factors in front of such Dirac impulses.

Now, sadly, none of this is "intuitive" in a graphical way, because as said, these things are impossible to draw correctly. You hence will need to stop thinking as integrals as sums over numbers that get denser and denser, and start thinking of them as taking the value under the curve of a graph, and where there's no drawable curve, might take other values, such as when integrating over such a Dirac distribution. Sorry!

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  • $\begingroup$ You don't have to just make the claim that $\mathcal F \left \{ e^{j 2 \pi f t} \right \} = \delta(\omega - 2 \pi f)$ and then backfill by showing it makes sense. You can time-limit the exponential to a rectangular pulse of duration $T$, or you can multiply it by a $\mathrm{sinc} \frac t T$, then find that in the limit as $T \to \infty$ you end up with something that acts like $\delta (\omega - 2 \pi f)$. It's a good exercise if you're feeling like the Fourier transform of a continuous sine wave isn't philosophically valid. $\endgroup$ Commented 2 hours ago
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Sampling Theorem in Reverse

The sampling theorem states that if a continuous-time function, $x(t)$, is ideally sampled, by multiplying by a string of appropriately scaled dirac impulse functions spaced in time at discrete intervals, $T$, the spectrum, $X(f)$, of that continuous-time function is copied, repeated, and overlapped at regular intervals in the frequency domain with frequency interval $1/T$. Since the Fourier transform is an invertible (one-to-one) operator, one could restate the sampling theorem and say that if one somehow copies, repeats, and overlaps at regular intervals (of $1/T$) the spectrum of some continous time function, it would have the effect of sampling that time function at regular discrete intervals spaced by $T$.

$$ \mathscr{F}\left\{ x(t) \cdot \left( T \sum\limits_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \delta(t-kT) \right) \right\} = \sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} X\Big(f - n\frac1T \Big) $$

where

$$ X(f) = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x(t) e^{-j 2 \pi f t} \ \mathrm{d}t $$

$$ x(t) = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} X(f) e^{+j 2 \pi f t} \ \mathrm{d}f $$

is the Fourier Transform and inverse. $\delta(t)$ is the Dirac unit impulse function.

enter image description here

The duality theorem of the Fourier Transform says that the roles of time $t$ and frequency $f$ can be exchanged, sometimes requiring a sign change in either $t$ or $f$. What this means is:

$$\begin{align} \mathscr{F} \Big\{ y(t) \Big\} &= \mathscr{F}\left\{ \sum\limits_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \hat{x}(t-kP) \right\} \\ \\ &= \hat{X}(f) \cdot \left(\frac1P \sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \delta\Big(f -n\frac1P\Big) \right) \\ \end{align}$$

where

$$ y(t) \triangleq \sum\limits_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \hat{x}(t-kP) $$

and

$$ \hat{X}(f) \triangleq \mathscr{F} \Big\{ \hat{x}(t) \Big\} $$

This says that copying, repeating, and overlapping a time function (call it a "wavelet" or a "grain") $\hat{x}(t)$ with repeat period of $P$ (or repeat rate or $1/P$) essentially samples the grain's spectrum at regular discrete-frequency intervals of $1/P$. This converts the continuous spectrum, $\hat{X}(f)$ of the nonrepeating grain function $\hat{x}(t)$ into a line spectrum, which is the Fourier Transform $Y(f)$ of the periodic function $y(t)$. The amplitudes of the discrete lines are the coefficients of the Fourier series of the repeated wave function $y(t)$.

The original grain spectrum $\hat{X}(f)$ can now be considered to be the "spectral envelope" of the line spectrum $Y(f)$. Note that if the repeat rate $1/P$ of the grains is changed, this changes the spacing of the line spectrum $Y(f)$, but not the spectral envelope $\hat{X}(f)$, which does not depend of P.

enter image description here

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