First, in terms of biblical writing, the first use of the word "Christos" is in the letters of Paul, who wrote - by nearly all accounts - earlier than any of the gospels. Thus, Paul's readers, especially his Gentile readers, would have used this word.
Earlier, people started calling Jesus "Christ" rather than "the Messiah" when they spoke Greek rather than Hebrew. The OP is correct that the high priest would not have used the Greek term when questioning Jesus. However, Jews who spoke Greek might indeed have used the term. We have a contemporary example of this principle when American Jews speak of going to the "synagogue" (a Greek-derived term) rather than the Hebrew beit kneset (meeting house).
There is also evidence that non-Jews witnessed some of Jesus' miracles, such as his exorcisms in the Decapolis. (Mark 5:19-20) This would have stimulated discussion about his role, in which "Christ" would have been used rather than "Messiah."
In addition we have a couple of more direct clues:
John 12
20 Now there were some Greeks among those who had come up to worship
at the feast. 21 They came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida in
Galilee, and asked him, “Sir, we would like to see Jesus.”
Whether these men were Hellenistic Jews or literal "Greeks," they apparently spoke Greek and would have used the Greek term to refer to the Messiah. Also:
John 19
19 Pilate also had an inscription written and put on the cross. It
read, “Jesus the Nazorean, the King of the Jews.” 20 Now many of the
Jews read this inscription, because the place where Jesus was
crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, Latin, and
Greek.
Although the term "Christ" is not used here, this provides good evidence that Jesus' messianic role was discussed in both Latin and Greek, as well as Hebrew and Aramaic.
Conclusion: the original text of Mark and the other gospels was Greek, so the word "Christ" is correct. People who spoke Greek would have called Jesus "Christ" rather than "Messiah" during his lifetime. Paul is the first NT author to use the term in writing.
Side question's answer: the word "Christ" was used in the Septuagint version of the OT, which was in wide circulation in the Roman empire and was used by most of the NT writings when they quoted scripture.
STRONGS NT 5547: χριστός
χριστός, χριστη, χριστόν (χρίω), the Sept. for מָשִׁיחַ, anointed: ὁ
ἱερεύς ὁ χριστός, Leviticus 4:5; Leviticus 6:22; οἱ χριστοι ἱερεῖς, 2
Macc. 1:10; the patriarchs are called, substantively, οἱ χριστοι Θεοῦ,
Psalm 104:15 (); the singular ὁ χριστός τοῦ κυρίου (יְהוָה מְשִׁיחַ)
king of Israel (see χρῖσμα), as 1 Samuel 2:10, 35; (1 Samuel 24:11; 1
Samuel 26:9, 11, 23); 2 Samuel 1:14; Psalm 2:2; Psalm 17:51 ();
Habakkuk 3:13; (2 Chronicles 22:7); also of a foreign king, Cyrus, as
sent of God, Isaiah 45:1