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1 Timothy 2:9-15 KJV

9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array; 10 But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works. 11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. 12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. 13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. 15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.

In trying to understand the Apostle Paul's intention for the usage of gyne in these verses, it would appear that Paul's intention was to address the role of the wife relative to her husband. It would appear this is true given the use of aner (singular) in verse 12 with the example of Adam and Eve in the next two verses. Is this understanding correct?

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    Aner is an individual, identifiable male person. Anthropos may, as in English, be translated 'man' indiscriminately or as 'humanity', which often is the better translation. So 'husband' - No. Not unless there is a very strong context ; which, here, there is not. Here, it is a matter of the community of the church., primarily. Then, also, the houshold. Commented Dec 18, 2024 at 22:19
  • What about the context of Adam and Eve in verses 13-15 making a distinction between the action of the husband and the actions of the wife? Commented Dec 19, 2024 at 13:24
  • Oh, and note the use of "gar" at the beginning of verse 13. Commented Dec 19, 2024 at 13:30

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In 1 Tim 2, up to verse 10, Paul uses the plural, “women”, presumably applying to all Christian women. However, in verses 11, and 12, he switches to the singular, “woman” or “wife”, and, "man" or "husband". I am inclined to think that Paul specifically has wives vs husbands in mind here, hence his change of grammatical number.

Indeed, several versions specifically note this: The NIV & BSB specifically offer this as an alternate translation in their respective margins.

I also agree with the OP's suggestion that "wife" vs "husband" preference (over woman vs man) in V11 & 12 is further strengthened by the example of Adam and Eve. Further, this teaching in 1 Tim 2:11-14 is very similar to that in 1 Cor 14:34, 35 where the intended meaning appears clear that Paul is intended to discuss wives vs husbands.

[Now, how these passages that are often used as the "Magna Carta" of ecclesiastical sexism should be understood is another matter that I have expressed strong views about elsewhere on this site, but that is another question.]

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