Questions tagged [grammar]
Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.
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How do the Hebrew grammar and timed structure of Daniel 9:27 shape its prophetic meaning? [closed]
Daniel 9:27
“And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations ...
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How should Daniel 9:26’s וְאֵין לוֹ be translated regarding the Messiah being “cut off”?
In Daniel 9:26, the Hebrew reads:
וּשְׁנַיִם וּשִׁשִּׁים שָׁבוּעִים אַחֲרֵי יִכָּרֵת מָשִׁיחַ וְאֵין לוֹ וְעַם‑נָגִיד יָבוֹא בַּשֶּׁטֶף וְהָעִיר וְהַקֹּדֶשׁ יִשָּׁחְתּוּ
The verse speaks of the ...
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How should Daniel 9:25 be translated to preserve coordinated Hebrew infinitives and numerical phrases accurately?
Daniel 9:25 (KJV):
"Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore ...
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"How do the six coordinated infinitives in Daniel 9:24 function grammatically, and how should this affect translation of their sequence and purpose?"
I am studying Daniel 9:24 and noticed that standard translations (KJV, Young’s Literal Translation) break the six infinitives into separate clauses. This seems to lose the grammatical coordination, ...
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In Genesis 1:2, what is the most accurate meaning of ruach?
Genesis 1:2 uses the phrase “וְרוּחַ אֱלֹהִים מְרַחֶפֶת.” Since ruach in Hebrew can mean “wind,” “breath,” or “spirit,” what in the grammar, parallel passages, or ancient Near Eastern usage helps ...
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Why does God shift personal pronouns from "us" to "I"?
I'm reading through Genesis and noticed in 18:17, "Then the LORD said, 'Shall I hide from Abraham what I am about to do?'"
In Genesis 1:26, He says, "Let us Make mankind in our image, ...
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Why does Daniel 9:25 reverse the normal Hebrew order (“weeks 60 and 2”) compared to 9:26 (“after the 60 and 2 weeks”)?
Why does the phrasing in Daniel 9:25 appear inverted—saying “weeks two and sixty”—while Daniel 9:26 preserves the more expected order, “after the two and sixty weeks”? This difference is not merely ...
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Is “for the week and a half of one week” a legitimate grammatical rendering of Daniel 9:27?
In Daniel 9:27, most English translations read something like “for one week” (or “for one seven”), later followed by “in the middle of the week.”
However, the Hebrew wording may allow a more unified ...
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Does the Hebrew grammar of Daniel 9:24–27 support Christian Widener’s “double seventy-weeks” interpretation? [closed]
Summary
Christian Widener contends that Daniel 9:24-27 outlines two distinct seventy-week (490-year) timelines—one fulfilled in Israel’s ancient restoration (Ezra/Nehemiah → Messiah), and a second ...
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Does “fullness” (πλήρωμα) in Ephesians 1:10 carry a double sense—both the fullness of divine power and the fulfillment of appointed seasons?
Paul’s phrase εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν (“unto the administration of the fullness of the seasons”) in Ephesians 1:10 is often translated as “plan for the fullness of time.”
However, ...
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What does “the dispensation of the fulness of times” mean in Ephesians 1:10–14?
Question:
In the King James Version, Ephesians 1:10–14 reads:
10 That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and ...
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Is τὰ in Mark 2:2 indicating people or things?
Mark 2:2 NA28: καὶ συνήχθησαν πολλοὶ ὥστε μηκέτι χωρεῖν μηδὲ τὰ πρὸς τὴν θύραν, καὶ ἐλάλει αὐτοῖς τὸν λόγον.
I'm striving to have a precisely thorough translation. Is the neuter plural article here ...
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Romans 10:9... How to translate the aorist active subjunctive for "confess" and "believe"? [duplicate]
Rom 10:9 (ESV)
"because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Both confess and belief are aorist ...
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Grammatically, Does Ephesians 1:22–23 Teach the Church Is the Fullness—or That Christ Expresses the Father’s Fullness in It?
The Question
Most English translations render Ephesians 1:22–23 as:
“…the church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.”
But does Paul’s Greek syntax—and his deliberate ...
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Why are there different versions of “He said…” in Genesis 18:10?
I’ve noticed that Genesis 18:10 has some controversy on who spoke this sentence. By controversy I mean between the different translations. The ESV and the CSB says, “The LORD said…” The NLT says, “...
