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Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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When determining when a day begins, there is a period of time of uncertainty about exactly when sunset occurs (the Sun just went below the horizon, but is it dark enough yet?). For sabbaths, to be ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
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Most English translations in Rev 5:9 read something like "You purchased people for God by your blood from every tribe and language and people and nation." However, the Revelation ECM/CBGM ...
eli stanley's user avatar
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“that, in reference to your former manner of life, you lay aside the old self, which is being corrupted in accordance with the lusts of deceit, and that you be renewed in the spirit of your mind,” ‭‭...
Cork88's user avatar
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Is there a difference between the different writings styles of the New Testament (NT) authors? I ask this question because I want to know if all books in the NT are really written in the 1st century ...
Yo-él's user avatar
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4 votes
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The word ἐπιφώσκω / epiphōskō / to grow light, to dawn is used in these 2 places in the NT: [Mat 28:1 KJV] 1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn[G2020] toward the first [day] of the week, ...
Yo-él's user avatar
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I found a detail in scripture, God always uses the anarthrous form of Kyrios when forming the sentence: (Kyrios mou), this is a very popular sentence in the whole bible, also in the New Testament, and ...
RainyCloud's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
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Should ἐν πρώτοις be translated as "amongst the first things?" I noticed recently noticed for the first time that the word for foremost in English is in the plural. Very few translations ...
Austin's user avatar
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5 votes
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I've seen discussion here and other places about what Jesus said in John 19:30, "It is finished". The Greek word "tetelestai" is what is discussed. My question is this. Why do all ...
Rick's user avatar
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This is not about I specific scripture, but rather about the different versions of the "original" Bible. For the Tenach (old Testament) I have heard of these version/translations: Masoretic ...
Yo-él's user avatar
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Luke 17:33-37 ..Why 'two men in one bed' and then 'two women grinding together' and 'two men in the field' and not simply two individuals or a man and a woman in bed? [KJV] Two women will be grinding ...
user236418's user avatar
-1 votes
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Does BH "interpret" these linguistic clarifications by God to mankind as gracious Knowledge given to correct worldly wisdom? Exodus 3:14 – And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he ...
Don's user avatar
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There are many variations on how the end of this verse is translated. (It seems that the meaning is changed, depending on the textual version used.) Here is the KJV: KJV I Thessalonians 1:3 ...
Don's user avatar
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My Authorized KJV is from Holman, 1996, super giant print edition. Heb 1:3 in my KJV translates "person" for ὑποστάσεως (hypostaseōs); "the express image of his (God's) person"; ...
Don's user avatar
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(Galatians 3:3) Could "epiteleo" ("finishing") in this verse be translated as "to fulfill further", better reflecting Paul's concern for those who were bewitched? Please ...
Don's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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(Hebrews 11:1) Does "hypostasis" have a possible meaning of "support, a setting under, essence, person" as well as "assurance, substance"? If anyone could post the BDAG ...
Don's user avatar
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