I'm reading Ανάβασις by Ξενοφών. I came across this sentence:
ἐν δὲ τούτῳ ἧκε Τισσαφέρνης ἔχων τὴν ἑαυτοῦ δύναμιν ὡς εἰς οἶκον ἀπιὼν καὶ Ὀρόντας τὴν ἑαυτοῦ δύναμιν: ἦγε δὲ καὶ τὴν θυγατέρα τὴν βασιλέως ἐπὶ γάμῳ.
I've searched to see whether a mis-copying might have occurred, but this appears to be what Xenophon wrote.
I don't quite get the need for the second "τὴν" here. I assumed it simply meant "the king's daughter" ... and obviously it's in the accusative. But wouldn't "τὴν θυγατέρα βασιλέως" have meant the same? And if X had felt a real need to put a relative pronoun in there, wouldn't the obvious one be "ἥν", "whom"? Squashing an acc. f. s. definite article next to a gen. m. s. noun looks pretty uncomfortable to me.
Is this maybe a recognised idiomatic way of writing? Is something extra added by repeating "τὴν" like this?