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I have two continuous random variables $X$ and $Y$ distributed according to the joint density function $f_{X, Y}(x, y)=K(x+y)$ for $0 \leq x, y \leq 1$, and 0 otherwise.

I am tasked with calculating the conditional probability $P(X>0.5 \mid X=Y)$. Here's the exact setup:

  1. Joint Density Function: $$ f_{X, Y}(x, y)=K(x+y), \quad 0 \leq x, y \leq 1 $$

The constant $K$ is determined by the condition that the total probability over the region must be 1: $$ \int_0^1 \int_0^1 K(x+y) d x d y=1 $$ 2. Conditional Probability: I need to compute $P(X>0.5 \mid X=Y)$. However, since $X=Y$ represents a line in the continuous space, I suspect that $P(X=Y)=0$, and the standard formula for conditional probability: $$ P(X>0.5 \mid X=Y)=\frac{P(X>0.5 \text { and } X=Y)}{P(X=Y)} $$ cannot be directly applied because $P(X=Y)=0$.

My Questions/Concerns:

  1. Is $P(X=Y)=0$ correct? Since we're dealing with continuous random variables, does this imply that $P(X=Y)=0$, making the standard conditional probability formula inapplicable?
  2. How can I calculate $P(X>0.5 \mid X=Y)$ in this case? Should I use a conditional density approach or limit arguments? How should I approach this when $P(X=Y)$ is zero?
  3. Finding the constant $K$ : I have already computed that $K=1$ by solving: $$ \int_0^1 \int_0^1 K(x+y) d x d y=1 $$ yielding $K=1$. Does this affect how I should proceed with the conditional probability calculation?

Attempted Solution:

  • After finding $K=1$, I considered the possibility that along the line $X=Y$, the marginal density would be uniform since the joint density $f_{X, Y}(x, y)=x+y$ is symmetric. Hence, the probability $P(X>0.5 \mid X=Y)$ might be 0.5 , similar to a uniform distribution on $[0,1]$
  • However, I am not entirely sure how to formalize this intuition. Should I approximate the conditional probability by looking at neighbourhood around $X=Y$, or is there a more rigorous method using conditional densities?

Any guidance or clarification would be greatly appreciated!

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1 Answer 1

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I think this is a variation of the Borel Kolmogorov paradox, for more information, see https://arxiv.org/abs/2009.04778 from Bungert and Wacker.

Question 1: $\mathbb P (X = Y) = 0$ is correct, but that doesn't necessarily mean that the usual definition is not applicable. As $X, Y$ are continuous random variables, $\omega \in \{X = Y\}$ could still hold for atoms $\omega \in \Omega$ and since $\{X > 0.5 : X = Y\} \subset \{X = Y\}$, we may still find a senseful conditional probability.

Question 2: Both, we should condition on the set $\{X - Y = 0 \}$ with the help of $\varepsilon$ - neigborhoods. As $\mathbb P (X - Y \in U_{\varepsilon} (0)) > 0$, we can now use the definition of conditional probability. At last, we take the limit.

Question 3: No.

It is important to note that $\{X/Y = 1\} = \{X - Y = 0\}$ is true, but $\mathbb P (X > 0.5 : X/Y = 1) \ne \mathbb P (X > 0.5 : X - Y = 0)$. Here, we should condition on $\{X - Y = 0\}$, as otherwise the $\varepsilon$ - tubes are not of constant width.

I'm sure that what I wrote is right, but I'm just a Bachelor's student, so there may be errors.

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