I am having trouble understanding the reason for choosing solutions as $\psi(x) = exp(ikx)$ in the following problem. I am following MIT OCW 8.04 lecture by Prof. Barton Zwiebach (Energy eigen states for a particle on a circle). Can somebody please help?
There is a free particle moving on a circle (described as a periodic function along $x$-axis). The time independent Schroedinger equation can be written as
$$\frac{-\hslash^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}\psi(x) = E\psi(x).$$ This is a second-order differential equation. So my understanding is that the solution needs to have two constants, i.e., let $$\psi(x) = A e^{ikx} + B e^{-ikx},$$ where $A$ and $B$ are the constants and $$k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hslash^2}.$$ But the solution assumed is $e^{ikx}$, why is it so chosen? Don't we need two constants?